^ Thanks for the info, but I still don't think we have a good analogy to differentiate the two sub-classes(?)
Because both oxycodone and hydrocodone are both Opiate analgesics, not Opioids or Opiate/oid antagonists... I'm quickly leaving my realm of understanding. But I know that both oxycodone and hydrocodone show up as codeine or thebaine on drug tests, not morphine, and I'm not sure you could tell one from the other. I know oxycodone breaks down into oxymorphone, and hydrocodone to hydromorphone... but again, I'm getting lost. Where's some one like Captain.Heroin, we need an expert.
I'm so confused by your post.
An opiate is a chemical that is derived DIRECTLY from the latex of P. Somniferum (thebaine/morphine/codeine)
An opioid is ANY chemical that binds to the opioid receptors (Agonist/Antagonist/Inverse agonist/Partial-Agonist/Partial... and so on) Salvinorin is an opioid, even though it binds to the kappa receptor and is a disassociative.
Hydrocodone and oxy are the definition of an opioid and are agonists (derived from the opiate, but as far as I know non-opioid thebaine), meaning they bind and elicit a response (the only antagonists I know of are naltrexone or naloxone/narcan which bind and do nothing).
As for metabolism, "Hydromorphone is metabolized to hydromorphone-3-glucoronide which has no analgesic effects. Like the morphine metabolite, morphine-3-glucoronide," they're broken down the same way as morphine because they're being broken down using the same P450 enzymatic pathway. I dunno about the drug/test metabolite part, (dipstick tests produce many false positive just when structures are similar. I believe they work by using an enzyme which turns color in the presence of a particular molecular structure, I could be wrong, and it's just a simple reagent like whats used in X testing kits).
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Anyways.
Edit: On the thebaine, so It might actually be an opioid, but only it's non-naturally occuring steroisomer
"The "unnatural" enantiomer (+)-thebaine does show analgesic effects apparently mediated through opioid receptors, unlike the inactive natural enantiomer (-)-thebaine"
A way to test would be if naloxone negates the analgesia, then it is an opioid. One of the most used ways to test that method of action.
Edit2: I don't know how we got here in a thread about clonazepam, but I'll stop, way far off topic, though I doubt the OP will receive a definitive answer, only a few subjective opinions.
I'll get back on topic. Upon looking there are thienobenzodiazepines: "a heterocyclic compound containing a diazepine ring fused to a thiophene ring and a benzene ring. Thienobenzodiazepine forms the central core of some pharmaceutical drugs including olanzapine."
Olanzapine is an atypical anti-psychotic. That's nuts.
And no pun.