ebola?
Bluelight Crew
I've already discussed the following issue with 'vack in private, but I'll make my thoughts public (because my ego is inflated that much).
>>But the gradual decline in the percentage of the population doing farming has occurred along with population growth (which is fueled by technological advance). When a farmer's son moves to the city and becomes an engineer, he might design a machine that makes farming more efficient. Also, certain areas of land will lose their fertility whether there is livestock production or not. It depends on the type and depth of soil, and the density of livestock population.
The town/country division was establishing itself far before modern capitalism. Theoretically, it began the instant when there were more humans than were required to farm enough food.
I think citing capitalism as the cause of metabolic "rift" is a rather weak line of argument, only because it doesn't help explain anything.
He says "capitalist agriculture turned the peasant into an urban proletarian."
But why not just say, "increasing agricultural technology gradually reduced the number of people required to farm enough food"? >>
I think you may be taking too "hard" a reading of Foster. I think he is arguing that capitalist development is one factor amongs several (albeit an important one) which has shaped human economic development in such a way as to foster (ha! get it?) the division of town and country and metabolic rift. I think that with the rise of the profit motive and acceleration of production due to capitalism's expansionary nature, we saw the ascent of the division between town and country arise as it did because such an arrangement was most efficient (efficiency being framed in terms of profitability). It was also the capitalist framework, principally the associated spreading commodification, that allowed the calculation of this efficiency. If a different system were in place, perhaps agricultural sites and dense human population centers would have developed to be more tightly integrated...but such hypothetical speculation is dubious when there is such a large number of relevant historical factors.
I should also note that in terms of the actual history of capitalist development in Europe, the ascent of capitalism did play a central role in proletarianizing the serfs. That is, the land occupied by the serfs was seized by the ermerging bourgeoisie and anti-vagrancy laws were passed, forcing these former serfs to turn to wage-labor.
All this having been said, it is likely the case that the simple production of surplus itself and increasing technological development, both of which being at the very least partially distinct from capitalist processes, had a hand in fostering the division between town and country.
ebola
>>But the gradual decline in the percentage of the population doing farming has occurred along with population growth (which is fueled by technological advance). When a farmer's son moves to the city and becomes an engineer, he might design a machine that makes farming more efficient. Also, certain areas of land will lose their fertility whether there is livestock production or not. It depends on the type and depth of soil, and the density of livestock population.
The town/country division was establishing itself far before modern capitalism. Theoretically, it began the instant when there were more humans than were required to farm enough food.
I think citing capitalism as the cause of metabolic "rift" is a rather weak line of argument, only because it doesn't help explain anything.
He says "capitalist agriculture turned the peasant into an urban proletarian."
But why not just say, "increasing agricultural technology gradually reduced the number of people required to farm enough food"? >>
I think you may be taking too "hard" a reading of Foster. I think he is arguing that capitalist development is one factor amongs several (albeit an important one) which has shaped human economic development in such a way as to foster (ha! get it?) the division of town and country and metabolic rift. I think that with the rise of the profit motive and acceleration of production due to capitalism's expansionary nature, we saw the ascent of the division between town and country arise as it did because such an arrangement was most efficient (efficiency being framed in terms of profitability). It was also the capitalist framework, principally the associated spreading commodification, that allowed the calculation of this efficiency. If a different system were in place, perhaps agricultural sites and dense human population centers would have developed to be more tightly integrated...but such hypothetical speculation is dubious when there is such a large number of relevant historical factors.
I should also note that in terms of the actual history of capitalist development in Europe, the ascent of capitalism did play a central role in proletarianizing the serfs. That is, the land occupied by the serfs was seized by the ermerging bourgeoisie and anti-vagrancy laws were passed, forcing these former serfs to turn to wage-labor.
All this having been said, it is likely the case that the simple production of surplus itself and increasing technological development, both of which being at the very least partially distinct from capitalist processes, had a hand in fostering the division between town and country.
ebola