BilZ0r
Bluelight Crew
- Joined
- Dec 15, 2003
- Messages
- 6,675
So I see this abstract:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/...&dopt=Abstract&list_uids=16014726&query_hl=10
And I'm like "Wow, getting cells that express the D1 receptor to express a bung NR1 subunit, thats a good trick, how in the name of fuck do you do that?"
So the methods say:
And I don't understand how that led to D1 receptor expressing cells exclusively expressing a shit NR1 subunit? Or is the idea that when D1 receptors are expressed, the mRNA gets processed into two proteins, the D1 and the NR1 polypeptide, so in D1 expressing cells, some NR1 is the bung version?
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/...&dopt=Abstract&list_uids=16014726&query_hl=10
And I'm like "Wow, getting cells that express the D1 receptor to express a bung NR1 subunit, thats a good trick, how in the name of fuck do you do that?"
So the methods say:
The targeting construct contained 7.0 kb of 129/Sv-derived Drd1a receptor genomic sequence. The NcoI site that contained the initiation codon of the Drd1a locus was converted to a BglII site, effectively destroying the initiation codon. The NR1 cDNA (gift from Gerald Rameau, New York University, New York, NY), containing an open reading frame with a hemagglutinin (HA)-epitope tag at a HincII site 27 amino acids from the N terminus, the N616R mutation, and a polyadenylation sequence, was cloned between this BglII site and a downstream HindIII site, replacing ~130 bp of the endogenous Drd1a gene. The resulting targeting construct had ~3 kb of genomic Drd1a DNA 5' and ~4 kb of Drd1a DNA 3' to the mutant NR1 cDNA. A simian virus 40 -neomycin resistance (Neo) cassette that is flanked by loxP sites was inserted immediately after the NR1 cDNA to allow selection in embryonic stem cells.
The linearized targeting vector was electroporated into V6.4 embryonic stem cells derived from a cross of 129/Sv and C57BL/6 mice. G418-resistant clones were expanded and screened by Southern blotting. For Southern blots, genomic DNA was digested with HindIII and probed with a 300 bp fragment of DNA from the Drd1a receptor locus immediately 5' to the targeting vector (see Fig. 1 A). Homologous recombination resulted in a product that was ~4 kb larger than the wild-type (WT) product. Of 360 clones screened, six were correctly targeted, and one gave germline transmission. Progeny carrying the mutant allele were genotyped using PCR primers to detect the presence or absence of the neomycin resistance gene (5'-GCTATTGGGCGAAGTGCCGG-3' and 5'-GGCAAGCAGGCATCGCCATG-3'). Southern blot on genomic DNA from Neo-positive pups confirmed the PCR results. Additional genotyping was performed using primers flanking the inserted sequence (5'-GACCAGGAAGAGGCCCCAGACT-3' and 5'-GTCACCTTGGACCGCAGGTGTC-3') and a primer from the NR1 cDNA (5'-CATGCTTGCGCGTGCTCAGCAC-3'). The mice containing the targeted mutation Drd1a Grin1-N616R (designated D1R-NR1m mice) were maintained on a mixed C57BL/6 x 129/Sv background. Control animals were littermates of D1R-NR1m mice that did not contain the targeted mutation (designated WT mice).
And I don't understand how that led to D1 receptor expressing cells exclusively expressing a shit NR1 subunit? Or is the idea that when D1 receptors are expressed, the mRNA gets processed into two proteins, the D1 and the NR1 polypeptide, so in D1 expressing cells, some NR1 is the bung version?