Bleaney
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Mar 13, 2021
- Messages
- 1,672
I've just done a quick 'Google' on the subject above, and all the threads I've seen so far suggest that there is no simple or straightforward conversion ratio. I understand that the substances are very different, and that it's like comparing apples and oranges, and that the way alcohol affects the brain and GABA is a lot more complicated.........
However........
I do know that sometimes severe alcoholics are switched to diazepam for their detox, so there must be some sort of pragmatic, real world, basic conversion guidelines that these detox centres use. Does anyone know what these guidelines are?
My issue is that I have been using benzos plus a quantity of whisky in order to be able to fall asleep at night. I don't really want the thread going off into a tangent as to why I did that, although I am fully aware that it was a bad idea.
I don't believe myself to be an alcoholic, although I have definitely formed an unhealthy dependency on relying on alcohol to help me fall asleep. For several reasons, the time has now come to taper down, and I've seen advice suggesting that in cases where a person has been using benzos plus alcohol, it's best to quit the alcohol before benzos in these cases. So this is what I am doing and plan to continue doing.
I had been consuming well over 3 double whiskies plus 1 single (plus benzos) for too long. I am gradually reducing down by a measure of 1 single whisky per night and plan to continue that rate of reductions until I run into problems falling asleep. At that point I may wait for my body to adjust and catch up, or temporarily increase my benzo dose slightly, if the adjustment does not happen for a very prolonged period.. This is where I am coming from with this question on this thread.
I'm not sure if I've posted in the correct subforum, but if anyone has any input other than calling me an idiot, that would be appreciated.
It's gone well so far over the first few nights, and I'm now down to 2 doubles. I know it won't be able to reduce much further before I begin to encounter issues with falling asleep and staying asleep. So some very rough equivalence guideline would be helpful. I know they are not the same, which is why I have mentioned all the caveats, hopefully to head off some of the responses whic might have been along those lines.
However........
I do know that sometimes severe alcoholics are switched to diazepam for their detox, so there must be some sort of pragmatic, real world, basic conversion guidelines that these detox centres use. Does anyone know what these guidelines are?
My issue is that I have been using benzos plus a quantity of whisky in order to be able to fall asleep at night. I don't really want the thread going off into a tangent as to why I did that, although I am fully aware that it was a bad idea.
I don't believe myself to be an alcoholic, although I have definitely formed an unhealthy dependency on relying on alcohol to help me fall asleep. For several reasons, the time has now come to taper down, and I've seen advice suggesting that in cases where a person has been using benzos plus alcohol, it's best to quit the alcohol before benzos in these cases. So this is what I am doing and plan to continue doing.
I had been consuming well over 3 double whiskies plus 1 single (plus benzos) for too long. I am gradually reducing down by a measure of 1 single whisky per night and plan to continue that rate of reductions until I run into problems falling asleep. At that point I may wait for my body to adjust and catch up, or temporarily increase my benzo dose slightly, if the adjustment does not happen for a very prolonged period.. This is where I am coming from with this question on this thread.
I'm not sure if I've posted in the correct subforum, but if anyone has any input other than calling me an idiot, that would be appreciated.
It's gone well so far over the first few nights, and I'm now down to 2 doubles. I know it won't be able to reduce much further before I begin to encounter issues with falling asleep and staying asleep. So some very rough equivalence guideline would be helpful. I know they are not the same, which is why I have mentioned all the caveats, hopefully to head off some of the responses whic might have been along those lines.
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