This is something that has bugged me for years. I have tried looking for resources that would give some kind of explanation but they are either way too deep for me to understand (written for pharmacologists) or they focus more on explaining the different receptors, etc. Maybe I am not asking the question in the right way.
For most drugs, it seems that there is some kind of similarity in the molecule among drugs of a similar class. Worlds of drugs are built off of the phenethylamine molecule. But then you start looking at opioid molecules and see something like heroin and also something like fentanyl. How do these drugs have such similar effects when they look, to me, like they are 100% unrelated?
Are there any tell-tale signs from the molecule that would tip someone off that a particular substance could affect opioid receptors? Or are these things simply found through experimentation and then mutating known molecules? Does it take years of study and a deep knowledge to look at a potential novel opioid molecule and see it for what it could potentially be?
For most drugs, it seems that there is some kind of similarity in the molecule among drugs of a similar class. Worlds of drugs are built off of the phenethylamine molecule. But then you start looking at opioid molecules and see something like heroin and also something like fentanyl. How do these drugs have such similar effects when they look, to me, like they are 100% unrelated?
Are there any tell-tale signs from the molecule that would tip someone off that a particular substance could affect opioid receptors? Or are these things simply found through experimentation and then mutating known molecules? Does it take years of study and a deep knowledge to look at a potential novel opioid molecule and see it for what it could potentially be?