LooseCannon00
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Jan 18, 2018
- Messages
- 2
I have a question regarding Fentanyl Citrate IV Injection. The bottle is 100 mcg/2ML.
The only syringe this person has is a 22G x 1 inch - 3 ML that is typically used for prescribed Testosterone IM injections. I've used these many times for opiate IV injections.
Can this syringe be used for the Fentanyl injections or would the measurement not be precise enough to use safely?
I am not certain, but would think that 1 CC = 1 ML = 50 mcg? Please only answer this question if you are certain. I guess my concern is that 1 CC in this large of a syringe seems like a large amount, and I wants to be certain before trying anything.
Assuming I has a decently high opiate tolerance, what is a safe but effective dose for an initial IV (NOT IM) injection?
Just to be positive, am I correct in assuming that 2 ML is 100 mcg? I apologize if this seems like a stupid/rookie question, but obviously this is extremely important.
Also, how different is the dosing for IM vs. IV injections?
Lastly, I read that there is no ?rush? like a typical opiate injection and the onset can take some time. Is this correct with IV injection or IM only? How long would I typically wait before safely dosing again?
Any info is greatly appreciated.
The only syringe this person has is a 22G x 1 inch - 3 ML that is typically used for prescribed Testosterone IM injections. I've used these many times for opiate IV injections.
Can this syringe be used for the Fentanyl injections or would the measurement not be precise enough to use safely?
I am not certain, but would think that 1 CC = 1 ML = 50 mcg? Please only answer this question if you are certain. I guess my concern is that 1 CC in this large of a syringe seems like a large amount, and I wants to be certain before trying anything.
Assuming I has a decently high opiate tolerance, what is a safe but effective dose for an initial IV (NOT IM) injection?
Just to be positive, am I correct in assuming that 2 ML is 100 mcg? I apologize if this seems like a stupid/rookie question, but obviously this is extremely important.
Also, how different is the dosing for IM vs. IV injections?
Lastly, I read that there is no ?rush? like a typical opiate injection and the onset can take some time. Is this correct with IV injection or IM only? How long would I typically wait before safely dosing again?
Any info is greatly appreciated.
Last edited by a moderator: