So in theory would cleaning the receptors with naloxone for a a few half life cycles significantly speed up methodone withdrawal?
Naltrexone/Naloxone are very likely
inverse agonists, meaning that they will actually cause the opioid receptor in question (Mu Opioid Receptor - MOR) to essentially disappear/be recycled. A MOR
silent antagonist may just sit on top of the receptor without causing it to be recycled, and that
may help increase expression of opioid receptors, but it would surely induce some precipitated withdrawal if there is still an opioid in one's system or if the basal endogenous activity of opioid receptors isn't zero.
There is evidence that naltrexone can help with withdrawal and tolerance when given in extremely low doses (We're talking 0.125mg). This seems to be because Naltrexone/Naloxone bind to a high affinity site (Filamin-A) and thus interfere with a switch in MOR's coupling to different downstream signaling pathways that occurs after chronic opioid use.
Normally an MOR agonist binds to the MOR and activates a signaling cascade element (G-protein) called Gi/o, which causes
inhibition of the cell that the MOR is expressed on and thus leads to the desirable effects of opioids. But with time, the MOR agonist causes the opioid receptors to switch their coupling to "Gs" G-proteins, which when activated by an agonist produces an
increase in the cells excitability. Eventually the opioid receptors stay "stuck" on Gs.
Naltrexone/naloxone appear to be able to prevent/reverse this aberrant coupling by binding to said high affinity site Filamin-A, and therein could be the reason for the efficacy of ultra low dose naltrexone for withdrawal (higher doses would block the Gi/o coupled MORs and outweigh the blockage of the "bad" Gs coupled MORs"). But low doses would cause recycling of the "bad" MORs or reversal of the aberrant G-protein coupling.
Depending on G-protein coupling, a ligand's affinity for a receptor can change, so its possible that naltrexone has higher affinity for MOR coupled to Gs than MOR coupled to Gi/o, meaning that naltrexone would preferentially block Gs a bit.
One may have this notion of "Give me naltrexone, give me a horrible withdrawal for 2 days and just get it over with" - I'm actually not sure about that notion. Increased dynorphin release -> increased signaling at kappa opioid receptors plays a role in opioid withdrawal (ibogaine seems to block some acute opioid withdrawal by partial agonism at the kappa opioid receptors, which effectively blocks some of the dynorphin signaling), so there may also be some component of kappa blockade when it comes to taking naltrexone for opioid withdrawal
It seems to me this would be a much better idea when no opioids are actually in one's system, you could block some of the dynorphin/kappa signaling without displacing the opioid agonist and precipitating withdrawal really bad. You would mostly be blocking the endogenous MOR agonists at that point, and I believe most non-opioid dependent individuals can take some naltrexone without displaying horrible withdrawal-like symptoms (I think they tend to get some sympathetic nervous system activation, this is my experience as well).
However, the opioid withdrawing patient without an active opioid in their system may already be vulnerable to an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity when taking naltrexone. An example is the increase in locus coeruleus (LC) cell firing with opioid withdrawal - this is an sympathetic/adrenergic projection that will be causing release of e.g. norepinephrine downstream and thus causing symptoms of withdrawal.
Eventually, the adrenergic receptors downstream of the LC will start to desensitize, and maybe taking naltrexone will just mean increased LC firing/more norepinephrine release but also faster desensitization of downstream adrenergic receptors, and faster activation of other homeostatic mechanisms that would act to inhibit the stress response.
So you
may be able to condense the withdrawal symptoms down to a shorter time frame, but I'm not sure if its overall less suffering. From a sleep deprivation point of view I would rather have a couple really shitty (excuse the pun) days than a week or two of zero sleep.
Any questions are welcome,
CY