Pharmakonis
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Jun 10, 2016
- Messages
- 12
I am on a cocktail from my psychiatrist of Adderall (racemic amphetamine salts), Valium (diazepam), Luminal (phenobarbital), as well as Neurontin (gabapentin), and Inderal (propranolol HCl). I also see a pain management doctor for multiple herniated vertebral discs and several dessicated/nearly non-existent discs, for which I get monthly injections of a corticosteroid and local anesthetic, as well as a steady, albeit very low (below the starting dose in the official prescribing information from Purdue) dose of Dilaudid of 4mg PO q8h (per os, every 8 hours or T.I.D.). While I will leave my complaints about this being a pathetically small dose for such a documented (MRI, EMG, NCS, CT, etc.) condition, he recently asked for a urine tox screen (DS10). This was something I easily passed when I first saw him as I was on NOTHING for pain. Well, as opioid users tend to, I adjust the dose and run out about 5 days before my next script is due. Anyway, the last tox screen I had not had a dose in more than 7 days, so the hydromorphone was clean out of me. I did test positive for the drugs he was expecting like my Adderall and Valium (POS on Amphetamines, Benzos, and Barbiturates), but not for all of the drugs he was expecting...dun dun dun... the hydromorphone should have shown up on the opiate panel. I know the test used is the immunoassay kind (a urine dip card) as I work at the hospital, even in the same area, but they generally frown on us doing our own UA's). So I have a single 4mg tablet and am planning to go for my UA tomorrow morning. I have used Dilaudid 12mg on evening of 5/23/17 and morning of 5/24/17, as well as an IV dose of 4.5mg at 3PM on 5/25, what are my chances of testing positive for hydromorphone-"OPI" with only a single 4mg oral or IV dose remaining? These are sterile tablets with no insoluble fillers, but I still run them through a .2 micron filter. So, my gut says I will test positive--and I should as a person shouldn't be able to take a 4mg D and have a negative result, but I just wanted some input.
I did pull a 1mg forensic standard from inventory (forensic standards are not controlled as the amount of the CS is so small and it is in methanol at a concentration of 1mg/mL), but doing the evaporation will yield a microscopic amount. I also have about 1.37mg of Dilaudid left in the tablets, aside from the 4mg tablet, that I can use, but don't really want to prepare a forensically sterile sample the day of the test and mix with my sample, even though the volume would be less than a tenth of a mL, and would not alter the adulterant detection for pH, creatinine, or oxidizers, it would just make me feel better to test positive on my own piss than add a just-in-case amount. Also, I know from running blood chemistries that the tests are often oblivious to free hydromorphone (and other controlled substances) and rather evaluate the sample based on conjugated or metabolites which are usually conjugated to glucuronic acid as glucuronides.
Just a quick answer to this weird question would be helpful to my nerves. In the future I will just pull a test and run my urine on one just for laughs, but too late for that.
Gratis
PS: Forgive if I missed this in the previous thousands of questions on drug tests, but I figured mine was difficult to search out to begin with and want some fresh input anyway...
I did pull a 1mg forensic standard from inventory (forensic standards are not controlled as the amount of the CS is so small and it is in methanol at a concentration of 1mg/mL), but doing the evaporation will yield a microscopic amount. I also have about 1.37mg of Dilaudid left in the tablets, aside from the 4mg tablet, that I can use, but don't really want to prepare a forensically sterile sample the day of the test and mix with my sample, even though the volume would be less than a tenth of a mL, and would not alter the adulterant detection for pH, creatinine, or oxidizers, it would just make me feel better to test positive on my own piss than add a just-in-case amount. Also, I know from running blood chemistries that the tests are often oblivious to free hydromorphone (and other controlled substances) and rather evaluate the sample based on conjugated or metabolites which are usually conjugated to glucuronic acid as glucuronides.
Just a quick answer to this weird question would be helpful to my nerves. In the future I will just pull a test and run my urine on one just for laughs, but too late for that.
Gratis
PS: Forgive if I missed this in the previous thousands of questions on drug tests, but I figured mine was difficult to search out to begin with and want some fresh input anyway...