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    15mg morphine how much tramadol to take with 15mg morphine PO 
    #1
    i have little to no opiate tolerance and want to nod. i have 9x50mg tramadol and 1x15mg morphine. i usually dont feel tramadol that much by itself so i was gonna take the morphine pill with like 4 tramadol. is this safe? and to give you an idea of my tolerance, i usually take ~25mg hydrocodone for a good high. if this combo is safe, how much tramadol should i take with the morphine for a good time?
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    #2
    Bluelight Crew effie's Avatar
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    Mixing opioids can add to the high, unless one overpowers the other completely, but make sure the overall amount of opioid you are taking is not going to be dangerous for you. There is an opioid conversion chart linked in the header at the top of this forum - take a look

    A lot of people don't get much from tramadol - it's not the most recreational opioid out there.. to get the most out of it it's best to take it in divided doses over a period of time, as this allows your liver to convert the maximum amount to o-desmethyltramadol, which is what is responsible for tramadol's opioid effects. Make sure you don't take more than 400mg in 24 hours however, as there is a risk of seizures.

    15mg oral morphine is quite a small dose and it may not add a lot to the tramadol. However, 25mg hydrocodone = about 100-150mg tramadol, or 25mg morphine (all oral). 200mg tramadol + 15mg morphine would therefore be stronger than 25mg hydrocodone according to the conversion chart, but tramadol conversions are difficult due to the varying responses. How much do you usually take? As a rule it's much safer to start low and add more if needed
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    #3
    Learn how to tackle your problem by yourself.

    First, if you want to convert to ~25mg. hydrocodone as your desired dose, use the Bluelight Opioid Conversion Chart. We find that 15mg. morphine PO is roughly 1:1 with hydrocodone; therefore, it is equal to ~15mg. of hydrocodone.

    We still need to account for 10mg. and all we have is tramadol. This is not included on the conversion chart because it is atypical. Think of tramadol as an antidepressant with weak effects on the mu-opioid receptor. In pain management circles, it is advised that 10mg. of morphine PO converts to 100mg. tramadol PO for analgesia. Therefore, you should take two 50mg. tramadols. This is subjective, of course.

    Tramadol is metabolized weird. It is better if you space out the dosing. I'd eat one hydrocodone and one tramadol at the same time; 30min. later eat the second tramadol. You may not like the effects of tramadol; also, you may feel that you need a dosage increase. If so, use the same strategy and time out around 30min. between each pill eaten.

    Watch out! Tramadol lowers the seizure threshold badly. Are you on any other prescription drugs? The increased seizure threshold may be potentiated by other drugs used concomitantly with tramadol.

    Be safe and enjoy yourself.
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    #4
    Quote Originally Posted by PsychedelicLove View Post
    i have little to no opiate tolerance and want to nod. i have 9x50mg tramadol and 1x15mg morphine. i usually dont feel tramadol that much by itself so i was gonna take the morphine pill with like 4 tramadol. is this safe? and to give you an idea of my tolerance, i usually take ~25mg hydrocodone for a good high. if this combo is safe, how much tramadol should i take with the morphine for a good time?
    I can tell you that 15mg of morphine even in a person with 0 tolerance may get no effects at all besides the reduction of pain.
    What brand of morphine is btw, ms-contin, or another similar extended release formula of morphine ssulfate? IF so you will get hardly a thing out of it. I took morphine sulfate for a.serious injury to my sternum and ribs not too long ago and was taking around 200mg. I myself had nearly no opiate tolerance prescious to this.

    I would say you shout take 50mg under your normal tramadolm dosage and see how you feel. You can always take some more if you lack desired effects.

    If you wanna get more out of the morphine try plugging it
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    #5
    I personally find morphine does not hold up to what is oral equivalent is said to be. I took 100mg of morphine sulfate by way of plugging it and didn't feel too much. I can tell you that I would not feel safe taking 100mg of hydrocodone with my very low tolerance. I find that 50mg of hydro is pleanty for me to get a nice buzz.
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    #6
    Quote Originally Posted by Cloroxtastebad View Post
    I personally find morphine does not hold up to what is oral equivalent is said to be. I took 100mg of morphine sulfate by way of plugging it and didn't feel too much. I can tell you that I would not feel safe taking 100mg of hydrocodone with my very low tolerance. I find that 50mg of hydro is pleanty for me to get a nice buzz.
    I actually do agree with this subjective report.
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    #7
    Bluelighter Dread calm's Avatar
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    i also find the codeine - oral morphine conversion chart to be iffy. Am i right in thinking that 10% of a codeine dose is converted to morphine? In which case 100mg of codeine should theoretically produce the same effects of 10mg oral morphine right? Well i get much More of a result from 100mg of codeine than 10mg oral morphine, in fact 10mg has no real effect at all.
    I've tried various doses like this, ie 30mg oral morphine vs 300mg codeine, and for me the codeine has come out on top everytime. So what gives???
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    Quote Originally Posted by Dread calm View Post
    i also find the codeine - oral morphine conversion chart to be iffy. Am i right in thinking that 10% of a codeine dose is converted to morphine? In which case 100mg of codeine should theoretically produce the same effects of 10mg oral morphine right? Well i get much More of a result from 100mg of codeine than 10mg oral morphine, in fact 10mg has no real effect at all.
    I've tried various doses like this, ie 30mg oral morphine vs 300mg codeine, and for me the codeine has come out on top everytime. So what gives???
    It doesn't exactly work like that. It only does if the drug itself or its other metabolites don't have any effects. In the case of Tramadol, the O-Desmethyltramadol that it metabolizes into gives it some of its effects, so you can't just say that Tramadol is equal to 10% of it's dose in morphine because that's how much of it metabolizes to that.
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    #9
    Bluelighter Dread calm's Avatar
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    i know that, but i meant codeine. Surely the liver converts codeine into morphine? So by taking 100mg of codeine, your liver converts it to 10mg of morphine, and so on. Am i wrong about that? If that is the case then I'm confused why 300mg of codeine should theoretically feel like taking 30mg of oral morphine. But it's completely different, the equivalen codeine dose has much more effect. Why is that? Its bugged me for yrs this question, never been given a straight answer.
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    #10
    Quote Originally Posted by Dread calm View Post
    i know that, but i meant codeine. Surely the liver converts codeine into morphine? So by taking 100mg of codeine, your liver converts it to 10mg of morphine, and so on. Am i wrong about that? If that is the case then I'm confused why 300mg of codeine should theoretically feel like taking 30mg of oral morphine. But it's completely different, the equivalen codeine dose has much more effect. Why is that? Its bugged me for yrs this question, never been given a straight answer.
    I believe the reason being the oral bioavailability of oral morphine. I would believe that the conversion of codeine to morphine would be equivelent to that of morphine administered through iv. 100mg of codeine is converted into about 10mg of morphine which has near 100% bioavailability.
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    #11
    Bluelighter Dread calm's Avatar
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    Gotcha, that would make a Bit More sense.
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    #12
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    Quote Originally Posted by Dread calm View Post
    i know that, but i meant codeine. Surely the liver converts codeine into morphine? So by taking 100mg of codeine, your liver converts it to 10mg of morphine, and so on. Am i wrong about that? If that is the case then I'm confused why 300mg of codeine should theoretically feel like taking 30mg of oral morphine. But it's completely different, the equivalen codeine dose has much more effect. Why is that? Its bugged me for yrs this question, never been given a straight answer.
    Most of the codeine (around 80%) is metabolized into Codeine-6-glucuronide, which is the metabolite that causes some of codeine's effects. Then 15% metabolizes into norcodeine, and the remaining 5% metabolizes into morphine. Therefore the Codeine-6-glucurondine is responsible for most of the effects, which is why you can't directly compare the dosage of codeine directly to the amount it metabolizes into morphine, since the morphine is not the primary drug responsible for the effects. I know your source said 10% and this says 5%, but that's not all that relevant considering that the majority of the drugs analgesia comes from the Codeine-6-glucuronide.
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    #13
    Bluelighter Dread calm's Avatar
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    Excellent answer, thank you. It makes perfect sense now.
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    #14
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    Something that I wonder about is if the 5 or 10% of morphine is the final amount, or if it then goes on to be metabolized as well. Like how oral morphine has a BA of 20-40% due to absorption and metabolism, I wonder if the % of morphine that codeine metabolizes into then goes on to be metabolized more, losing some of the drug in the process, or if the 5-10% is what you get after all of that. If it's the latter, then that may also explain why you find codeine to be stronger than the % of morphine it metabolizes into, although a larger reason why you feel it to be stronger is due to the reasons outlined in my previous post.
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    #15
    Bluelighter Dread calm's Avatar
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    i have also wondered that, if the small percentage of converted morphine is metabolised in the same way as oral morph is then surely it'd be barely a trace amount making it to your bloodstream? To be completely honest i think oral morphine is a waste of time. I've got a strip of IR 10s and other than booting them i really dunno what to do with them. Eating them just seems a waste.
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