My friend is perfectly naive to opiates. Last time he took a 5/500 vicodin years ago he was pretty high, and 10/1000 would make him uncomfortably high. Several months ago he took a 5mg oxycodone and was slightly higher than he would have liked, although he admits it was his favorite type of high ever.
Now he has cheratussin (10mg codeine/100mg guaifenesin per serving). So my questions are
1. Can he get high without taking "too much" guaifenesin?
1a. How much guaifenesin made you sick when you were completely naive to it (to guaifenesin)?
2. By no other measure except your own experience, how much codeine would equal a 5mg vicodin high? A 10mg vicodin high?
Also, is there any way to separate the codeine from the rest of the bullshit liquid? I'm also opiate naive, and in my experience 40mg-50mg of codeine (in cheratussin) is 5mg hydrocodone, for whatever that's worth.