From what I read on a post in Other Drugs about Opiate Potentiation, Loperamide potentiates Methadone because it binds to some opiate receptors located in the body (gut, intestines, etc... ), but not the receptors in the brain, so Methadone doesn't bind to these receptors, as Loperamide is already on them, and so more Methadone will make an effect to the brain...
Is it the right theory? Did I understand it correctly?
So if I take a lot of Loperamide a few hours before taking Methadone, it will bind to many of the opiate receptors located elsewhere than in the brain, and taking Methadone after that will make it more potent, because more of it will have a central action?
But what if the Methadones affinity for these receptors is higher than the affinity of Loperamide, and it takes the Lopermide off the receptors and takes its place?
Does anyone know which of these Opioids (Loperamide & Methadone) has the higher afinity for these receptors?
(and last question, if Methadone has a higher affinity, will it still be a usefull way to potentiate it to take Loperamide before taking it?)
I hope everyone understands what I mean...