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Benzos Valium Brand VS US Generic

The whole idea of generics being 20% deficient or having 20% more than the brand name is quite absurd and I don't know if this is 100% true or not. I've heard a lot of people say that generics can vary between 20% +/- the brand-name stated dose (so if a dose is 10mg, the generic can be 20% either +/- that 10mg brand-name dose.) I honestly find this quite absurd and I don't know if this is true or not; can anyone present any facts for this and show if this is accurate or not?

A lot of debate on ADHD meds (dextroamphetamine and mixed amphetamine salts) have been going on these days especially on certain ADHD forums where people think that the generic dextroamphetamine/generic mixed amphetamine salts are 'deficient' because of this 20% +/- variation, according to them which apparently they got from the FDA.

If anyone can clarify this issue again it'd be appreciated. Thanks.
 
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