I think I'm a little confused by how all this works.
I understand that all other opiates are compared against morphine. Does this also mean that morphine provides better pain relief than other opiates?
I guess I would have thought the cancer patients I've known would have been prescribed more
"modern" opiates, such as oxycontin, or opana, or fentnyl. But I'm no dr and it seems like I don't quite understand why morphine is still so widely prescribed.
I understand that the times I've used morphine and found very little recreational value in it, that doesn't mean that if I were in pain at that time, that the morphine would have provided relief.
I understand that all other opiates are compared against morphine. Does this also mean that morphine provides better pain relief than other opiates?
I guess I would have thought the cancer patients I've known would have been prescribed more
"modern" opiates, such as oxycontin, or opana, or fentnyl. But I'm no dr and it seems like I don't quite understand why morphine is still so widely prescribed.
I understand that the times I've used morphine and found very little recreational value in it, that doesn't mean that if I were in pain at that time, that the morphine would have provided relief.