Difference in effects of high 6-MAM H vs pure DiAM?

Is there a reason why when I shoot high quality tar (its out there I suppose), I get a much faster rush - roughly 6 seconds to onset and much peakier than with a high quality (strictly) Diamorphine substance?

With No.4, while the dose is smaller I get more of an "onset" that takes place over 15-20 seconds, not much of a rush.

The overall high is nearly identical, however... after the first 10 minutes or so. Both in length and intensity.

There are other alkaloids in tar heroin, like noscapine/papaverine.

Not to mention opioids like morphine, codeine, and 6-acetylcodeine. Unreacted morphine and codeine may give a feeling a bit similar to opium or morphine. To what extent it depends on % of unreacted alkaloids.

Pure diacetylmorphine may seem less interesting because there's nothing, nothing... and suddenly it hits the brain. With heroin "adulterated" with morphine and/or codeine the effects are first felt in the body from the spot of injection. Histamine release is a part of morphine rush and as it secreted also in the autonomic nervous system, it's felt faster.

I feel you on the more intense rush of mam over diamorphine. I've read somewhere mam crosses the bbb more quickly then diamorphine (diamorphine needs to break down into morphine as well while mam can be used "as is". this is all coming from memory from reading something about diamorphine being a prodrug which was in a tar vs powder thread on a different site I believe). the other alkaloids in tar also provide their own unique effects as was stated above as opposed to strictly diamorphine.
reading reviews of pharm grade diamorphine apparently its very lackluster in comparison to the adulterated street heroin due to lacking other alkaloids such as mam, morphine, etc.

I'm pretty sure diamorphine penetrates the BBB faster than 6-MAM, but 6-MAM is reduced to morphine more rapidly than diamorphine is, and so it has a faster onset.

Where is this "pure" diamorphine coming from? Is this a pharmaceutical source? When you refer to it as #4, it sounds like you're talking about just a white powder heroin. That'll contain all sorts of other opium alkaloids and their acetylated derivatives the same as tar. There's certainly tar with a higher purity than white powdered forms of heroin, so that's irrelevant.

I suspect it's psychological, but that's just me.

Hammilton said:

I'm pretty sure diamorphine penetrates the BBB faster than 6-MAM, but 6-MAM is reduced to morphine more rapidly than diamorphine is, and so it has a faster onset.

Click to expand...

You guys are confusing me with all this "6-MAM is converted to morphine more rapidly thus has faster onset." My understanding is that diamorphine and 6-MAM both have similar or greater potency at mu than morphine, with similar efficacy, so should produce opiate effects without need for conversion. They're thought of as pro-drugs not because they have no action on their own, but because they're converted so quickly that their intrinsic activity is irrelevant. In that case quickest onset of effects goes to whichever crosses the BBB fastest (diamorphine).

Am I way off here?