Greetings Friends,
I have been some research on BL and noticed that the combination of opiates and cocaine has been reported to be very effective and show synergy in a way that is "greater then the sum of its parts" while opiates and meth is reported to be nothing special or pleasant at all.
(I am interested in testing out the classic speed ball concept myself (coke and opiates) so just doing my due diligence first)
I believe there may be a factual reason for this but I am wondering why this might be the case. I realize coke is a reuptake inhibitor and meth increases dopamine availability with a different mechanism but at the end of the day they both work via increasing the availability of dopamine to cause their desired effects (to put it really simply).
I was wondering if there might by any technical reason why each might react so differently in combination with opiates?
Thanks.
I have been some research on BL and noticed that the combination of opiates and cocaine has been reported to be very effective and show synergy in a way that is "greater then the sum of its parts" while opiates and meth is reported to be nothing special or pleasant at all.
(I am interested in testing out the classic speed ball concept myself (coke and opiates) so just doing my due diligence first)
I believe there may be a factual reason for this but I am wondering why this might be the case. I realize coke is a reuptake inhibitor and meth increases dopamine availability with a different mechanism but at the end of the day they both work via increasing the availability of dopamine to cause their desired effects (to put it really simply).
I was wondering if there might by any technical reason why each might react so differently in combination with opiates?
Thanks.