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Opiates and stimulant effect

LuxEtVeritas

Bluelighter
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Jun 29, 2007
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Is there a definitive reason why some opiates appear at low-moderate dosing to have potentials for a more stimulating effect than others.

Such as from what I have heard Oxycontin seems to promote this more than many others.

Also Pure Mitragynine and analogues seems to engender this effect in a similar fashion.

Perhaps in my limited knowledge this is not accurate, but I am interested in comments regarding such from those with either experiential or theoretical expertise (both optimal of course ,LOL)

TIA
 
Pure mitragynine? I was under the impression that the main psychoactive alkaloid in kratom was 7-hydroxymitragynine. According to the always reliable Wikipedia, anyway...

Kratom definitely has a more stimulating effect than true opiates like morphine. Whether this is due to a difference between single molecules, or due to the fact that kratom likely has several different actives, is AFAIK an open question.
 
Yeah, that's true, but pure mitragynine is available, and has a similar effect. the 7-hydroxy derivative is more potent, but from my personal tests, there effects aren't that different.

I always wonder about the "true opiate" idea. I tend to consider anything that binds to MOR an opiate, and those partial agonists opioids. Obviously not the official or common understanding, but it makes more sense in my mind.

But from what I've seen, (go figure) F&B is dead on. The more stimulating opioids tend to have of a dopaminergic effect. I think this is related to why some opioids are more addictive than others- hydrocodone isn't as stimulating, less addictive. Oxycodone is more, more dopamine, a better agonist and way more addictive.

That probably won't prove true, but I'm gonna stick to it for a while.
 
I know you've already pre-empted yourself, and mean nothing personal here, but if you are aware of literature backing up the claim that oxycontin results in significantly greater extracellular DA concentrations or anything like that over hydrocodone, I would be very interested to read it, and would love it if you could pm or email it to me.
 
fastandbulbous said:
Dopaminergic activity (also related to the degree of nausea at higher doses)
At least in regard to kratom, I will have to disagree... but then again, the OP did ask about opiates (and I assume that's what you were replying to).

The sensation of kratom stimulation feels nothing like dopaminergic drugs to me, but I've been wrong about this before (re: desoxypipradrol, which also doesn't feel very dopaminergic to me).
 
dopaminergicity is what i was thinking as well, though i have not seen any studies looking into this facet

and yes 7-hydroxymitragynine is more active than Mit itself by about 30X but also there is about 30X as much Mit as 7-OH Mit I believe in most harvested kratom (rough average) so they both likely contribute near equalli in unadulterated material


Kratom also varies depending on location and other factors and has other actives that while likely are not of that much impact above the effect of the main ones mentioned they assumably exert some effect
 
I haven't seen any studies saying that hydro has less dopaminergic activity than oxycodone. Purely speculation.

I do recall some studies showing DA is released more in some drugs than others, but I don't remember what drugs they were.

As I recall, it was in the Journal of Psychoactive Drugs from the mid-90s. If I can get to the library today (all bets are off there), I'll go through them and post what I find.
 
What I'd be looking for if I were you is delta opioid receptor activity (DOR). I believe the DOR is more tied into the inhibition of the GABAergic activity which suppressed dopamine release. Morphine, one of the LEAST stimulating opioids IMO, is basically pure MOR. Stuff like levorphanol was always rather stimulating to me, and I've had friends who ate large doses of my prescription and had sleepless nights because of it.
 
I don't know about that. I've had more than a couple different DORAs that I didn't find particularly stimulating. Some I did, some I didn't.

I never found buprenorphine to be particularly stimulating after the first 3 doses every time I started it (3 times now, I think).

I do think that the receptor sub-types play a role in determining the stimulatory effects of a opioid.

I don't think oxycodone is DORA (at least at any appreciable strength), and it's undeniably stimulantory
 
Dopaminergic Effect of Very Euphorigenic Opioids

The Monkey Mantra said:
What I'd be looking for if I were you is delta opioid receptor activity (DOR). I believe the DOR is more tied into the inhibition of the GABAergic activity which suppressed dopamine release. Morphine, one of the LEAST stimulating opioids IMO, is basically pure MOR. Stuff like levorphanol was always rather stimulating to me, and I've had friends who ate large doses of my prescription and had sleepless nights because of it.

My experience with delta agonist like SNC 80 has been one where tolerance seems anecdotally inhibited somewhat when combined with various mu agonists. I have not taken Kratom, but want to note that with plants, it is not always apparent which compounds are involved. For example with nicotine, we see much less of a pleasure response in the mesolimbic system from iv nicotine than from smoking a cigarette in smokers. This has been suggested to be from some of the harma alkaloids in tobacco that are MAO-B inhibitors (MAO-B is responsible for the catabolism of dopamine and phenethylamine, but not serotonin or norepinephrine.) So other components of kratom may explain the excitation that you are saying is associated with it.

By stimulant effect, are you talking about not being able to sleep when taking a dose of opiates? If so, drugs like morphine and codeine have this effect as well as drugs like heroin or oxycodone. It appears that initially, a dose large enough to get someone nice and high in an opiate naive person will do this across the board. This effect attenuates over time and completely disappears once dependency upon that drug is achieved. It is possible to use a drug that may hit different receptor splice variants and get this effect ephemerally.

Splice variant research has really made us rethink opioid receptors, and perhaps receptor theory in general. By splice variants, I am referring to homodimeric, heterodimeric as well as polymeric combinations of the different human opioid receptors, MOR, DOR, KOR and ORL (and possibly others like sigma-1). Recent data has putatively shown us that these play a normal physiologic role in the opiodergic system, and much of the receptor binding variations that occur from drugs such as heroin (which is not just converted to morphine before being active,) may account for some of the differences in drugs like 6-MAM and heroin when compared to morphine. But it does not appear to be all of the difference involved.

It is very obvious to most people who have sampled some of the more euphorigenic opioids like fentanyl, sufentanil, AMF, BHAMF, phenazocine, oxymorphone, N-phenethyl normorphine, N-phenethyl noroxymorphone, etc. that there are extreme differences in these opioids from say morphine, codeine, methadone or propoxyphene. Even on the scales used to arbitrarily categorize these differences (the ARCI-MBG Drug Liking Scale; ARCI-PCAG Sedation Scale; ARCI-ASSS Stimulation Scale; as well as the DQM and VAS Scale equivalents), that the differences do not appear to be a result of opiodergic differences alone.

All drugs of abuse putatively have an effect on the mesolimbic reward pathway (Ventral Tegmental Area [VTA] and the Nucleus Accumbens [NA]), and the dorsal Caudate Nucleus [DCP] ; some also affect the dopaminergic systems in the prefrontal cortex, but the common underlying event is an increase in extracellular dopamine in the NA. Opioids all seem to stimulate the VTA directly, which then connects to the NA; but the more euphorigenic opioids putatively affect the NA directly as well as indirectly through the VTA.

Using the example of fentanyl, phenazocine, N-phenethyl normorphine or some of the interesting propioanilides when compared to morphine, if you examine the three dimensional structure, it putatively has some characteristics like a stimulant of the amphetamine or 4-methylaminorex type molecule. Whether these molecules affect the DAT (Dopamine Transporter), the VMAT-2 (Vesicular Monoamine Transporter) or directly bind to D2 receptors in the NA has not been determined yet, but using a D2 selective antagonist like raclopride or eticlopride directly injected into the NA, fol owed by intraventricular the tritiated opioid (e.g., [H3]fentanyl) will help move research in that direction.

Some other future experiments are to use opiates that use parts of some stimulants of the cocaine type like tropane based cocaine analogues such as WIN 36,065-2 or WIN 35,428, CFT, RTI-55, RTI-121 (which also could possibly affect serotonin); or some novel arecoline derived analogues like (-)-methyl 1-methyl-4beta-(2-naphthyl)piperidine-3beta-carboxylate, which is mostly involved with the DAT only.

MobiusDick
 
could there possibly be GABA antagonism...doubt it, but....

what's left??

still dopaminergicity as the main likely agent?
 
Some of the opioids like methadone also are weak NMDA antagonists, and NMDA causes a decrease in release of presynaptic dopamine. But you would then expect methadone to be more euphoric than it is. To me the answer is (and this is separate than the above more direct dopaminergic hypothesis (i.e., D2 receptor, DAT or VMAT-2) that methadone actually is euphoric when done iv, but when done orally, the pKa of methadone means that it is not well absorbed in the stomach and must wait until it reaches the small intestine before it gets absorbed to any extent (unless baking soda or an antacid is taken with it.) In addition, Cmax is not reached until about 4 hours post ingestion which is quite a long time for opiates. But when done iv, methadone is almost as euphoric as heroin; however, it is not anywhere close to the propioanilides like fentanyl or those phenanthrenes that have an N-phenethyl group instead of an N-methyl group.

Drugs like ketamine and PCP have been shown to increase extracellular dopamine; however, NMDA antagonists that do not do this also are self-administered.

There are also some contradictory data in awake primates by Adams, Bradberry, and Moghaddam suggesting that PCP and ketamine are not effective dopamine releasers.

MobiusDick
 
I do find methadone to be more numbing than other opiates. I've actually peirced my ear cartilage with a sewing needle, sans ice or aneasthetic, only methadone for pain relief.

Never felt a thing.
 
'only' methadone? Like methadone is not one of the most supreme pain killers known to man. (that you can take and stay conscious)
 
It might be interesting to tweak the original question in search of a more fundamental answer; therefore, why are opiates associated with a certain level of somnolence? - The answer is the glutamatergic system.

Sedation by the opioid class occurs at least mainly via indirect inhibition of the excitatory glutamatergic system. My guess is that inhibition of GLU is variable among opioids, implying that a varying degree of sedation (hence, a varying degree of the perception of stimulation by seasoned MOA users) exists across the board of full agonists.
 
Sedation is associated far more with kappa agonism than it is with mu agonism. In addition, NMDA antagonism is not common in opioids. Methadone, LAAM and methadol do seem to block NMDA type glutamate receptors, but morphine and heroin show no significant NMDA antagonism.

Do you have any references concerning other opioids that block any type of glutamate receptors (AMPA or kainate as well as NMDA)?

I think it is important to remember that the vast majority of the nervous system is inhibitory, not excitatory. If all systems were firing at once all the extraneous data would create chaos. Most neurons are not firing at any given time.

There is not a linear correlation between glutamatergic activity and stimulation if that is what you are getting at, other than proconvulsant activity. If you are looking for the neurohormone responsible for mental alertness, look up orexin. These data come from studies with narcoleptics, who putatively have only 1/1oth of the orexin producing cells than the normal person. Provigil's mechanism of action is through stimulation of the orexin producing cells.

MobiusDick
 
MOA's directly suppress cAMP levels thus inhibiting metabotropic GluR's. I threw out the hypothesis that oxycodone might not inhibit mGluR's as much as selective MOA's, thereby creating a stimulant effect relative to full MOA's. I began with the presumption that oxycodone didn't have much to do with kOr.

I offer my apologies, though; I should have edited that post. Upon further investigation, I found that oxycodone was an m,k opioid receptor agonist, and I immediately realized why you guys were talking about kratom, which I understand is a kappa-opioid agonist and has stimulant effects in lower dosages.
 
Ham-milton said:
I don't know about that. I've had more than a couple different DORAs that I didn't find particularly stimulating. Some I did, some I didn't.

I never found buprenorphine to be particularly stimulating after the first 3 doses every time I started it (3 times now, I think).

I do think that the receptor sub-types play a role in determining the stimulatory effects of a opioid.

I don't think oxycodone is DORA (at least at any appreciable strength), and it's undeniably stimulantory

I have read 6 articles on Buprenorphine and the Delta receptor:
4 say it is an antagonist
1 says it is an agonist.
and 1 says it is a very weak agonist.

i think it is mostly a DOR antagonist, or a very weak agonist.

and yes DOR agonists are physically stimulating from what i have read.

i find Buprenorphine stimulating due to the Kappa antagonism, but it takes an hour or two before this kicks in after taking it.
 
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