Opioids Question about Opioids Potentiating Opioids?

[ChemicallyEnhanced]

Is there actually true potentiation? Or just them added together?
For example (with codeine being 1/10th the strength of morphine) if I take 120mg codeine with my 40mg morphine...is it just "potentiated" as in it's the equivalent of 52mg morphine, or do they ACTUALLY potentiate each other where the effect is greater than the sum of its parts?

 

[kongoman]

¿Existe realmente una verdadera potenciación? O solo se suman?
Por ejemplo (con la codeína siendo 1/10 de la fuerza de la morfina) si tomo 120 mg de codeína con mis 40 mg de morfina... ¿simplemente se "potencia" como si fuera el equivalente a 52 mg de morfina, o REALMENTE se potencian entre sí donde el efecto es mayor que la suma de sus partes?

Sí, es como tomar 52 mg de morfina.
thats my experience

 

[ChemicallyEnhanced]

Lo mismo en mi experiencia, también. Pero Bluelights "Opioid Potentiation Thread" los reclamos por lo demás.

 

[izo]

they dont seem to potentiate each other to my knowing but especially when you have some different and not the best opioids at hand, mixing them might lead to a better high than each of their own in the respective dose.

 

[TheUltimateFixx]

Ahhhh what -?!

The term 'opiate' merely designates anything that's derived more or less directly from the opium poppy, while 'opioid' refers to any purely synthetic analogue. They're the same substance class essentially.

You generally only speak of 'potentiation' when you add a DIFFERENT substance to the mix that will enhance the effects of the first one. For example alcohol can potentiate the effects of certain other drugs. But if I'm taking shots of neat whisky alongside my beer, I'm not 'potentiating', I'm merely increasing my alcohol intake.