so i was reading this on reddit, that hypothesized that any damage done and negative post-effects from MDMA was because it was metabolized to an extent to alpha-methyldopamine (neurotoxin) and to 2,4,5-trihydroxy-amphetamine (which drastically lowered enzymes such as tryptophan hydroxylase sometimes up to a week later).
the thread focused on keeping MDMA from being metabolized (by inhibiting CYP3A4) to MDA, because they (a-methyl-DA and 2,4,5-tryhidroxy-amp) were metabolized from it.
but i was wondering, most of MDMA is metabolized by CYP2D6, which is an enzyme that greatly varies from person to person - some people not even having it or something. variations in the expression of 2D6 would mean what?
after MDMA turned into MDA, to be turned into alpha-methyldopamine it would need 2D6. same goes for 2-OH-MDA turning into 2,4,5-trihydroxy-amphetamine. therefore 2D6 is needed to these two unwanted molecules to happen.
if one would have no 2D6 activity, then none of these unwanted molecules would be formed? or if someone had big 2D6 activity, then only little MDMA would be subject to 3A4 metabolism and turned to MDA, therefore less a-methyl-DA and 3,4,5-trihydroxy-amp too, right? because 3A4 is also needed for them to form. its kinda complicated because the paths cross
so, what would individual variations in 2D6 activity mean? do you think it would be better to have less/no 2D6 or more? how would someone without 2D6 activity metabolize MDMA? just ring hydroxylation and N-demethylation into MDA by 3A4?
just wondering
the thread focused on keeping MDMA from being metabolized (by inhibiting CYP3A4) to MDA, because they (a-methyl-DA and 2,4,5-tryhidroxy-amp) were metabolized from it.
but i was wondering, most of MDMA is metabolized by CYP2D6, which is an enzyme that greatly varies from person to person - some people not even having it or something. variations in the expression of 2D6 would mean what?
after MDMA turned into MDA, to be turned into alpha-methyldopamine it would need 2D6. same goes for 2-OH-MDA turning into 2,4,5-trihydroxy-amphetamine. therefore 2D6 is needed to these two unwanted molecules to happen.
if one would have no 2D6 activity, then none of these unwanted molecules would be formed? or if someone had big 2D6 activity, then only little MDMA would be subject to 3A4 metabolism and turned to MDA, therefore less a-methyl-DA and 3,4,5-trihydroxy-amp too, right? because 3A4 is also needed for them to form. its kinda complicated because the paths cross
so, what would individual variations in 2D6 activity mean? do you think it would be better to have less/no 2D6 or more? how would someone without 2D6 activity metabolize MDMA? just ring hydroxylation and N-demethylation into MDA by 3A4?
just wondering