arthunter888
Bluelighter
- Joined
- May 23, 2009
- Messages
- 623
Hi I just had sex with a woman who is somewhat new to me. We've been casual friends for a year, but now we are both romantically interested in each other. The sex was amazing, we have great chemistry and we both really want to continue on a regular basis.
It was taking me very long to finish mainly because I was wearing a condom and wasn't getting enough sensation, so she suggested I could lose the condom because she is physically 'unable' to become pregnant. I asked why, and I can't remember it word for word but the gist of her response was:
she said that her long-term heroin use has made her unable to become pregnant. Something to do with the heroin interrupting her menstrual cycles, thus making the dead tissue build up and creating scarring in her reproductive area as a result (something to that effect).
I took her word for it (and I am also confident that she is STD-free in case you are wondering), so I removed the condom which helped a lot, although I pulled out before I came just in-case she wasn't fully infertile.
She is clean from the dope now and has been for a long time, but was once a heavy user. I don't see any reason she would lie about this because for one she claims she was embarrassed about being infertile and only told me about this reluctantly because it was important given the circumstance. Another thing is that long before we became romantically involved she expressed multiple times that she does NOT want to have kids, ever (neither do I).
So basically I kind of trust her, and she swears that past partners have came inside her many times and she never got pregnant. However I want to be 100% sure of this before I start cumming inside her, as I do NOT ever want a kid and having one would ruin my life, but I really want to be able to cum inside her in the future and not worry about this.
Does anyone know if this concept is scientifically verified? Could you explain the specifics about what anatomical mechanism(s) make heroin use potentially cause infertility in women?
It was taking me very long to finish mainly because I was wearing a condom and wasn't getting enough sensation, so she suggested I could lose the condom because she is physically 'unable' to become pregnant. I asked why, and I can't remember it word for word but the gist of her response was:
she said that her long-term heroin use has made her unable to become pregnant. Something to do with the heroin interrupting her menstrual cycles, thus making the dead tissue build up and creating scarring in her reproductive area as a result (something to that effect).
I took her word for it (and I am also confident that she is STD-free in case you are wondering), so I removed the condom which helped a lot, although I pulled out before I came just in-case she wasn't fully infertile.
She is clean from the dope now and has been for a long time, but was once a heavy user. I don't see any reason she would lie about this because for one she claims she was embarrassed about being infertile and only told me about this reluctantly because it was important given the circumstance. Another thing is that long before we became romantically involved she expressed multiple times that she does NOT want to have kids, ever (neither do I).
So basically I kind of trust her, and she swears that past partners have came inside her many times and she never got pregnant. However I want to be 100% sure of this before I start cumming inside her, as I do NOT ever want a kid and having one would ruin my life, but I really want to be able to cum inside her in the future and not worry about this.
Does anyone know if this concept is scientifically verified? Could you explain the specifics about what anatomical mechanism(s) make heroin use potentially cause infertility in women?