truenamebrand
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Jul 10, 2016
- Messages
- 269
First of all, if anyone happens to live in this area or frequent it, there are confirmed fake "blues" going around, and they have been for a long time. I've taken them from this dirtbag before and always had my suspicions due to the very short duration of action, and mixed results I'd get from them (sometimes one 30 making me vomit and other times one 30 doing next to nothing).
At any rate, my close friend continues to buy from this guy, and last night his wife OD'd. On ONE "30." Her tolerance is fairly low, but even someone with no tolerance is not going to need narcan from 30mg of oxycodone. To make things worse, it was obviously a mixed bag from pill to pill because he took three and was fine. She is fine now, but she was "gone" enough that without medical attention, who knows what would have happened.
The strange thing here, and where my question comes into play is, there were no opioids even detected in her urine. When he first texted me and told me what happened I assumed it was a fent analog or something, but that clearly wasn't the case. I'm not super familiar with RCs, so I'm wondering, if it was an RC that caused the OD, would it for sure show up as something being tested for (opioids, benzos etc), or is it possible that nothing would show up, as happened here? I know it's impossible to know what caused it given so little information, but knowing how RCs show up on tests could go a long way to at least having some sort of idea.
Thanks
At any rate, my close friend continues to buy from this guy, and last night his wife OD'd. On ONE "30." Her tolerance is fairly low, but even someone with no tolerance is not going to need narcan from 30mg of oxycodone. To make things worse, it was obviously a mixed bag from pill to pill because he took three and was fine. She is fine now, but she was "gone" enough that without medical attention, who knows what would have happened.
The strange thing here, and where my question comes into play is, there were no opioids even detected in her urine. When he first texted me and told me what happened I assumed it was a fent analog or something, but that clearly wasn't the case. I'm not super familiar with RCs, so I'm wondering, if it was an RC that caused the OD, would it for sure show up as something being tested for (opioids, benzos etc), or is it possible that nothing would show up, as happened here? I know it's impossible to know what caused it given so little information, but knowing how RCs show up on tests could go a long way to at least having some sort of idea.
Thanks