Vastness
Bluelight Crew
- Joined
- Mar 10, 2006
- Messages
- 2,331
So in characteristically neurotic obsession with monitoring and regulating my substance usage, I noticed I had been using benzodiazepines more than usual over the past 2 to 3 weeks. I had to track back through my usage logs and make some judgements based on starting stash contents and current stash contents over time since the data recorded in realtime was somewhat incomplete - no real surprise given the substance under discussion.
Anyway by my calculations over the past 18 days I've used etizolam at a dosage of at least 1mg / day average. But during that time, my usage has not been consistent, with a 2mg initial dose, 4 day break from days 1 through 5, then 1mg, 1mg, 2mg, 6mg, 3mg, 1mg, 0mg, 0mg, 0mg, 0.5mg, 0.5mg, 1mg.
So my question, essentially, is if there is neurophysiologically any difference in the neuroadaptations I should expect to have occurred over this period, with fairly pronounced spikes and troughs in the graph of usage, so to speak, compared to if I had just dosed 1mg consistently for the past 18 days? Or even, say, 0.5mg BID for 18 days?
My primary question is specifically about benzodiazepines (OK, a specific thienodiazepine technically) but I'm interested in answers relating to other classes of GABAergic substances as well, for example the difference in tolerance formation and other neuroadaptations with binge drinking compared to consistent drinking where the total volume of alcohol consumed over a given period is identical. Or even non GABAergics - I would venture to say that with dopaminergic stimulants especially, the differences (if there are any) in the character of such changes would be more pronounced, when the Area Under Curve on the graph of dose versus time remains identical but the shape of the curve does not.
Anyway by my calculations over the past 18 days I've used etizolam at a dosage of at least 1mg / day average. But during that time, my usage has not been consistent, with a 2mg initial dose, 4 day break from days 1 through 5, then 1mg, 1mg, 2mg, 6mg, 3mg, 1mg, 0mg, 0mg, 0mg, 0.5mg, 0.5mg, 1mg.
So my question, essentially, is if there is neurophysiologically any difference in the neuroadaptations I should expect to have occurred over this period, with fairly pronounced spikes and troughs in the graph of usage, so to speak, compared to if I had just dosed 1mg consistently for the past 18 days? Or even, say, 0.5mg BID for 18 days?
My primary question is specifically about benzodiazepines (OK, a specific thienodiazepine technically) but I'm interested in answers relating to other classes of GABAergic substances as well, for example the difference in tolerance formation and other neuroadaptations with binge drinking compared to consistent drinking where the total volume of alcohol consumed over a given period is identical. Or even non GABAergics - I would venture to say that with dopaminergic stimulants especially, the differences (if there are any) in the character of such changes would be more pronounced, when the Area Under Curve on the graph of dose versus time remains identical but the shape of the curve does not.