I'm a long-term stimulant addict trying to figure out this mysterious drug armodafinil that I've just been prescribed to help with amphetamine withdrawals...
I understand that Modafinil (and its enantiomers to different degrees) bind to the DAT. Is this the only way modafinil acts on dopamine?
Armodafinil really does feel like a stimulant for me (though I know it isn't classed as one). It really scratches my the itch I have after years of prescription amphetamine abuse. I'm just coming off of vyvanse and it completely eradicates the physical cravings and withdrawal symptoms. I know modafinil is doing a lot more beyond dopamine, but my first thought was that this experience is coming from its ability to increase synaptic dopamine.
Am I off base? One way to look at it would be to compare it to cocaine, a potent dopamine reuptake inhibitor with a high affinity for the DAT. Cocaine is obviously more of a thrill ride than modafinil, but even, now that I'm taking 250 mg armodafinil as prescribed, the effects have unmistakable shades of amphetamines and cocaine. Or maybe that's in my head... Can anyone point me to a stat or figure compares the dopamine reuptake inhibition of modafinil to that of cocaine? Is it as simple as comparing affinity for DAT?
I'm questioning the idea that modafinil is a good medical approach to stimulant abuse disorder. The thing that would really help would be a comparison of synaptic dopamine levels in different parts of the brain from therapeutic doses of amphetamine salts and modafinil. If you've read through this you can probably tell I'm not an expert on this stuf, so... is that type of info out there? Can you point me to any studies that might help me get to the bottom of all this?
I understand that Modafinil (and its enantiomers to different degrees) bind to the DAT. Is this the only way modafinil acts on dopamine?
Armodafinil really does feel like a stimulant for me (though I know it isn't classed as one). It really scratches my the itch I have after years of prescription amphetamine abuse. I'm just coming off of vyvanse and it completely eradicates the physical cravings and withdrawal symptoms. I know modafinil is doing a lot more beyond dopamine, but my first thought was that this experience is coming from its ability to increase synaptic dopamine.
Am I off base? One way to look at it would be to compare it to cocaine, a potent dopamine reuptake inhibitor with a high affinity for the DAT. Cocaine is obviously more of a thrill ride than modafinil, but even, now that I'm taking 250 mg armodafinil as prescribed, the effects have unmistakable shades of amphetamines and cocaine. Or maybe that's in my head... Can anyone point me to a stat or figure compares the dopamine reuptake inhibition of modafinil to that of cocaine? Is it as simple as comparing affinity for DAT?
I'm questioning the idea that modafinil is a good medical approach to stimulant abuse disorder. The thing that would really help would be a comparison of synaptic dopamine levels in different parts of the brain from therapeutic doses of amphetamine salts and modafinil. If you've read through this you can probably tell I'm not an expert on this stuf, so... is that type of info out there? Can you point me to any studies that might help me get to the bottom of all this?
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