Helpingabuddy
Greenlighter
- Joined
- May 26, 2017
- Messages
- 1
A friend of mine was positive for opiates and was told that this was particularly serious because he'd been with his kids that day and was obviously under the influence.
My impression is that the test is looking for the metabolite that your body turned the opiate into. So while you may be testing positive AND under the influence, testing positive isn't itself a direct indication that you were impaired when the result was displayed.
That's to say, your body may be telling them the metabolite is present, but may well have been from days prior and is not an indication that you are impaired at that time. Please let me know if this logic follows or is mistaken (this is not a question about testing, but is a question about a) are metabolites what is being looked for and b) does their presence indicate possible impairment). Thanks.
My impression is that the test is looking for the metabolite that your body turned the opiate into. So while you may be testing positive AND under the influence, testing positive isn't itself a direct indication that you were impaired when the result was displayed.
That's to say, your body may be telling them the metabolite is present, but may well have been from days prior and is not an indication that you are impaired at that time. Please let me know if this logic follows or is mistaken (this is not a question about testing, but is a question about a) are metabolites what is being looked for and b) does their presence indicate possible impairment). Thanks.