I'm a bit confused, I was under the impression that severe vasoconstriction of the intracranial arteries can occur with excessive 5-HT2A agonism, and that migraine related pain had to do with vasodilation.
If Sarpogrelate, a migraine medication, is blocking 5-HT2A, could we speculate that Sarpogrelate's efficacy comes from inhibiting the excitatory neural activity (cortical spreading depression) that causes release of vasodilatory substances from Trigeminal neurons, and hence must either cross the BBB appreciably to affect neurotransmission, or that it may not cross the BBB and interferes with the release of vasodilatory substances from Trigeminal neurons more directly?
Or wouldn't it at least need to be able to cross the blood nerve barrier to interfere with release of vasodilatory substances from the Trigeminal neurons?
Just curious if Sarpogrelate could be used for psychedelic therapy patients who have peripheral vasoconstriction tolerance issues.